I just know Piccadilly shut down years ago in my area. I believe there is maybe one left in Newport News. But that's far from where I live.

Stock trading in the last 4 years is almost completely different than pre-covid. With the rise of AI trading platforms, hedge funds found that they can make far more money through option manipulation than investing the traditional way. They learned this from the huuge Gamestop bubble that forced many hedge funds to go under because they had puts on margin. AI algorithms became attuned to making the most out of option trading, and sentiment now changed on the drop of a pin the moment news came out. A lot of these wealthy hedge fund managers also have their hands into social media news outlets and could freely manipulate the narrative to inject as much fear as they can so they can do the exact opposite to profit off of options. Take for instance last week. The word "crash" appeared in many news headlines. JP Morgan cut TSLA price target IN HALF. Yet, what happened the next day? Up 5%. Whole market rallied. We saw last week the market dropped exactly 10% from the peak and then the AI kicked in to start buying everything, despite all the news. I use relative strength index for stock trading, but if you take an aggregate of the word "crash" appearing in search results for news articles, that indicates a bottom is near. Hedge funds are pushing a narrative hard before they start buying. That happened last Tuesday. Let's see what happens now.

I'm hijacking yet another dead thread to pose a question befitting the title. I was having a talk with a coworker and was curious to know what y'all thought about this. Should it be legal for a company to partner with another company and then dictate said other company's pay and benefits as well as work schedules, but not be legally responsible for said employees on account they work for the other company therefore it isn't the 1st company's responsibility to make sure said other company pays its staff or take responsibility for any wrong doing the partner does? The partner company must also exclusively do contracts for the primary company and use primary company's assets to perform that job. However all legal repercussions are exclusively the secondary company's fault. The primary being exempt from all wrong doing. Does that make sense? Does that sound like it should be legal to do?